Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh Hà Nội năm 2022
Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh Hà Nội năm 2022 bao gồm 4 đề thi thi thử vào 10 của các trường nổi tiếng trên địa bàn Hà Nội.
Đề thi thử tiếng Anh vào 10 Hà Nội giúp các em học sinh lớp 9 có thêm nhiều tài liệu ôn luyện, củng cố kiến thức, làm quen với các dạng đề, bài tập tiếng Anh để đạt được kết quả cao trong kì thi vào 10 sắp tới. Bên cạnh đó các em tham khảo thêm bộ đề thi thử môn Toán Hà Nội năm 2022. Vậy sau đây là nội dung chi tiết bộ đề thi thử vào 10 môn Tiếng Anh Hà Nội 2022, mời các bạn cùng theo dõi và tải tại đây.
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Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh
TRƯỜNG THPT ……….
ĐỀ THI THỬ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (8.0 points)
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
1. A. volcano
2. A. mushroom
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. surface
4. A. benefit
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
5. You need your shoes to repair, don’t you?
C. to epair
6. I borrowed some milk from a neighbor of US as we didn’t have enough for breakfast.
D. have enough
7. When they lived in Jakarta, they used to eating, Indonesian food.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indSicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
8. _______ extended family include several generations living together in the same house.
9. The crowd at the basketball game were wild_______excitement.
10. I’ve tried those tablets and they are not_______in helping me stop coughing.
11. Which is_______, Mount Everest or K2 in the Himalaya?
B. the higher
D. the highest
12. He couldn’t reach the goal, _______surprised me.
13. The school_______all the students to take an interest in arts.
14. I like sitting on the beach watching the_______in the evenings.
15. There is_______water in the well but not enough for everyone in the village.
B. a few
D. a little
16. I bought these magazines_______have something to read on the trip.
B. so that
C. so as to
D. in order
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
17. Jim: “What about collecting used paper, bottles and plastic bags every day?’”
Ha and Mai: “_______”
A. Because they can pollute the environment.
B. How come? Who can do that?
C. That’s a very good idea. Let’s do that.
D. What about this weekend?
18. Phuong: “I’m taking my TOEFL test tomorrow.”
A. Good fortune.
B. Good luck.
C. Good outcome.
D. Good success.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. Don’t worry, you can count on me. I’ll try my best to help you.
A. look after
B. live on
C. rely on
D. stand for
20. We had a discussion in class today about requiring students to wear, school uniforms.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to theunderlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
21. A small fish needs camouflage to hide itself so that its enemies cannot find it.
22. Solar energy doesn’t cause pollution, but it is not cheap.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
It is estimated that about three billion people use the Internet computer network around the world. Most people use the Internet to (23) _______information or for entertainment. A new study, however, shows US that almost 10% of Internet users are using it SO often that it is seriously harming their lives. The study (24) _______that these people may find it difficult to stop using the Internet because they have become addicted. Someone who is addicted finds it extremely difficult to stop (25) _______activity. According to a psychologist in the field. 30% of Internet users claim that they use the Internet to escape from (26) _______or emotions. The study also shows that having a chat or discussion with strangers on the Internet is one of the most (27) _______activities.
23. A. take
25. A. the
26. A. trouble
27. A. liking
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
One of the biggest trends in television in recent years has been the rise of “Reality TV”. These shows, in which ordinary people are placed in unusual situations and then filmed without a script, have become some of the highest rating shows on television. Early programs of this genre, including Big Brother (from the Netherlands) and Survivor (from the United States), have led to dozens of copycat programs in many different countries. A common element to many of these programs is that a number of contestants are placed in a closed environment in which they are filmed 24 hours a day, and every week contestants are thrown off the show. What is it about these shows that makes them so popular? Perhaps it is because viewers enjoy watching ordinary people with real emotions being placed in extraordinary, situations. Or perhaps it is that people are really voyeurs – they enjoy being a spy, looking secretly into other people’s lives.
28. In recent years, “Reality TV has become more and more_______.
29. The underlined word ‘‘which” in the passage refers to_______.
A. a common element
B. a closed environment
C. every week
D. the show
30. We can see that Big Brother is_______.
A. from the Netherlands
B. from the United States
C. a copycat program
D. shown in many different countries
31. What is true about “Reality TV”?
A. They are made by ordinary people.
B. They create many copycat programs.
C. They describe people’s lives.
D. They are filmed without a script.
32. We can infer from the passage that_______.
A. “Reality TV” used to be more trendy
B. “Reality TV” is becoming more and more competitive
C. viewers enjoy watching something real but unusual
D. viewers can become spies to look into other people’s lives
II. WRITING (2.0 points)
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meanin, to each of the following questions.
33. “I will help you,” Bob said to me.
A. Bob told me he would help me.
B. Bob asked me to help him.
C. Bob said that he would help you.
D. Bob warned me that he would help her.
34. They had decorated the tree with colored balls.
A. Colored balls had been decorated under the tree.
B. The tree had been decorated with colored balls.
C. They had decorated colored balls and the tree.
D. With colored balls the tree had looked beautiful.
35. I don’t want to hear you complaining any more.
A. I’ve had enough of your complaining.
B. I wish to hear you complaining more and more.
C. Why don’t you complain more?
D. I’m too busy to listen to your complaining.
36. I didn’t arrive in time to see her.
A. I was early enough but I didn’t see her.
B. She was late so I couldn’t see her.
C. I wasn’t early enough to see her.
D. I am so late that I can’t see her.
Finish the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, beginning with the given words.
37. The mother made the little girl go to bed in time.
The little girl _________.
38. She can’t go to school today because she is ill.
If she _________.
39. My sister began to learn English when she was six years old.
My sister has _________.
40. The car was so expensive that my dad didn’t buy it.
The car was too _________.
Đáp án đề thi thử tiếng Anh 10
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (8.0 points)
II. WRITING (2.0 points)
33. A 34. B 35.A 36. C
37. The little girl was made to go to bed in time by her mother.
38. If she were/ was not ill, she could go to school today,
39. My sister has been learning English since she was six years old./
My sister has learnt English since she was six years old.
40. The car was too expensive for my dad to buy.
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